It's clear that the Uthman's Quran recension is a very stable text tradition, and I'm sometimes asked: is there any text in antiquity that shows a similar kind of stability over such a long time?
The answer: Yes there is. The (proto-)Masoretic tradition of the Hebrew bible.🧵
The Masoretic Text (MT) is one of several text traditions of the Hebrew Bible, and it is the tradition in which it is printed today. We technically speak of the Masoretic Text only when it has full vocalisation signs and marginal reading notes. thetorah.com/article/the-bi…
This tradition gets the form as we know it around the 10th century, and has remained basically unchanged since then.
However, with new discoveries (especially the Dead Sea Scrolls) it became clear that a consonantal skeleton of the MT is much much older. thetorah.com/article/judean…
Many text from around the 1st century CE show this MT-like consonantal skeleton. Texts of this type are typically called Proto-Masoretic Texts. Emanuel Tov says these manuscripts are "Virtually Identical" to the 10th century codices like the Aleppo Codex. So how similar are they?
One of the scrolls Tov mentions is the Masada Psalms scroll copy a (MasPsᵃ), and this one is accessible online, so we can do a little test. In the following I'm comparing Psalms 82 and 83 as they appear in MasPsᵃ to modern print editions.
MasPsᵃ's Psalm 82 is, letter-for-letter completely identical to the MT. I've grayed out the letters that were not readable, and gave a light red background to the parts that were difficult to read, but the conclusion is obvious: there is no difference, the text was unchanged.
Most of Psalm 83 is also present. There are however two small deviations.
Ps 83:8 is lacking a wåw so it reads: gəḇål ʿammon wa-ʿămåleq "Gebal, Ammon and Amalek" instead of the standard gəḇål wə-ʿammon wa-ʿămåleq "Gebal, and Ammon and Amalek"
No difference in meaning.
The other difference is not a lacking consonant, but rather an extra consonant, in Ps 83:14 the MT read ʾɛ̆lohay "O my God!", whereas the scroll reads ʾɛ̆lohim "O God!" A rather minimal difference, but a difference none the less.
So how does that compare to the Quran? The portion we looked at for the Proto-MT to MT comparison consisted of 695 characters, so let's do a similar portion for the Quran, Q20:1-25. We'll compare the famous Birmingham fragment to the modern print edition.
Q20:1-13 we encounter one deviation from the modern print qurans. Q20:10 fa-qāla is spelled without the ʾalif ڡڡل not ڡڡال. This is regular in early manuscripts, and modern print Qurans consistently deviate from the Uthmanic text in this regard.
For Q20:13-25 a couple more differences appear. Three more cases of qāla spelled without ʾalif, ǧanāḥika spelled without ʾalif and ʾatawakkaʾu spelled without the wāw it has in modern print Qurans.
Between modern print Qurans and ancient manuscripts differences are in fact more common than between the MT and proto-MT. However, in the Quran deviations almost exclusively pertain to spelling differences, while the two deviations in MasPsᵃ are textual in nature.
The types of deviations you see in MasPsᵃ are not unheard of in early manuscripts however. In fact, on this same folio we see Q20:31 originally started with wa-šdud/ʾašdud bihī ʾazrī "confirm my strength with him", wa- "and" was later scratched away (absent in modern text)
Some variants showing up between manuscripts whether a word starts with wa- 'and' or not is quite typical, and in fact such insignificant differences are so ancient that they were already present in the original four regional codices of the Uthmanic Text.
For example, Q3:133 starts at sāriʿū "hasten" in the codices of Syria and Medina, whereas in Kufa and Basra, it reads wa-sāriʿū "and hasten!"
These spelling difference are in fact also found in early manuscripts.
Cases where a missing letter gives a meaningfully different interpretation such as ʾɛ̆lohay "O my God!" vs. ʾɛ̆lohim "O God!" are quite rare in the Quranic text, but one may compare the regional variant Q43:71 taštahīhi "desire it" (Syria/Medina) vs. taštahī (Kufa/Basra) "desire"
Outside of respectively the Masoretic Text and the Uthmanic Text, differences are much more pervasive. for the Hebrew Bible we're lucky to have quite broad access to other text types, e.g. the Samaritan Pentateuch and the text that underlie the Septuagint, Peshitta translations.
For the Quran, the Uthmanic Text is absolutely dominant. However, there is still the famous Sanaa Palimpsest whose lower text clearly reflects a non-Uthmanic text tradition. There are also scattered reports in literary sources of deviations that different companion codices had.
I hope this gives a bit of a sense of the relative stability of the MT, compared to the UT. Its stability is very impressive (and quite comparable), and has been stable for an even longer time!
Also make sure to check out Tov's wonderful series on the MT: thetorah.com/series/proto-m…
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Whenever one learns Classical Arabic, they are usually told that it has 6 vowels, three short ones: /a/, /i/, /u/, and their long counterparts: /ā/, /ī/, /ū/.
But many Quranic reading traditions have more than those, a short thread on the vowel systems of the seven readers. 🧵
Every single reader may have an overlong pronunciation of every single long vowel the reader has. These overlong vowels are phonetically conditioned and therefore non-phonemic. They occur: 1. Before hamza /ʔ/: [samāāʔ] /samāʔ/ 2. In super heavy syllables: [dāābbah] /dābbah/
Ibn Kaṯīr simply what we would think of as the Classical Arabic vowel system. The only difference is it has the non-phonemic overlong vowels. But I've argued in a recent paper that that is actually a feature more broadly in Classical Arabic prose.
Question for my followers who know Japanese: I'm looking at a Japanese Quran translation, and for the honorific form it uses compounds with 給う. But past tense isn't the expected tamatta, but 給うた, I'm guessing tamōta. Is that Classical Japanese? And how does it work?
I suppose this is the way that Kansai-ben would do a past tense like that. 笑うた warōta instead of 笑った waratta. But I don't think this translation is aiming to be in Kansai-ben. So is conventional modern pronunciation of Classical Japanese kansai-ified?
Im aware that there are other cases of polite/honorific speech where Japanese verbal conjugation suddenly start working as if it is Kansai-ben. Most notably with verbs like 御座る gozaru, which in the renyoukei form suddenly loses the expected /r/, 御座います.
Al-Farrāʾ's "Kitāb fīhi Luġāt al-Qurʾān", while listing different dialectal forms, he frequently opines on what is or is not used in recitation. He is our earliest source (d. 207 AH) of normative opinions given about what is appropriate for recitation. A small thread:🧵
faʿīl stems may become fiʿīl if the second root consonant is one of the six guttural consonants among Qays, Tamīm and Rabīʿah: riḥīm, biʿīr, liʾīm, biḫīl, riġīf, šihīd.
"But one does not recite with it, because the recitation is with the former (Hijazi) practice", ar-raḥīm etc
Qurayš and Kinānah say: nastaʿīnu, and the recitation follows it. Tamīm, ʾAsad and Rabīʿah say nistaʿīnu.
The Kufan al-ʾAʿmaš, who is part of al-Farrāʾ's isnād (al-Kisāʾī < Ḥamzah < al-ʾAʿmaš) , in fact recited in this way. But by al-Farrāʾs time no it was no longer accepted.
Today, by far the most dominant recitation of the Quran is that of Ḥafṣ (d. 180/796) who transmits from the Kufan reciter ʿĀṣim (d. 127/745). But this dominant position it has today appears to have been a rather recent one.
Thread on looking for Ḥafṣ in early manuscripts 🧵
Contrary to certain pseudoscholarly modern claims, there is absolutely no evidence that Ḥafṣ represents the "reading of the masses" from time immemorial until today. The reading was one of many and it only started to become dominant during the ottoman empire.
But just because it became dominant then, of course does not mean the reading was not transmitted before that. It certainly was, that much is clear even from the literary sources. Already with Ibn Mujāhid (d. 324/936) who canonized the seven, Ḥafṣ is included in transmission.
What is it with Classical Arabic/Qurʾānic Arabic textbooks and teaching people incorrect Arabic...
It seems like everyone has decided collectively it's better to lie about the details than actually teach it correctly.
So then you get the joy of unlearning all you learned wrong!
Of course there's also just the downright ignorant stuff about the Arabic script.
Why on earth write on the history of the script at all, if you're not going to reality check even a single thing you're saying! ARGH!
Moreover, a book that purports to be about "Quranic Arabic" but is actually specificlaly about the Arabic of the reading of Ḥafṣ ʿan ʿĀṣim is defensible, but at the very least you should *mention* that it is.
Al-Farrāʾ's maʿānī al-qurʾān is an important early source of a somewhat systematic description of the Kufan readings. Usually what he reports agrees with what we find in the canon. But sometimes he deviates from it, like this discussion for Q29:66. He tells us:
"ʿĀṣim and al-ʾAʿmaš recited wa-l-yatamattaʿū, taking it as a command or rebuke, with no vowel on the Lām, and the people of the Ḥijāz read wa-li-yatamattaʿū with a kasrah (on the lām) taking it to mean kay 'in order to'"
But that's not how ʿĀṣim is said to read!
Indeed at least for the Medinan Nāfiʿ, disagreement is reported for reading wa-li-yatamattaʿū. In canonical transmissions both the Medinans Waṛš from Nāfiʿ and ʾAbū Jaʿfar indeed read wa-li-yatamattaʿū as al-Farrāʾ reports (but Ibn Kaṯīr, the other Hijazi does not).