Whenever one learns Classical Arabic, they are usually told that it has 6 vowels, three short ones: /a/, /i/, /u/, and their long counterparts: /ā/, /ī/, /ū/.
But many Quranic reading traditions have more than those, a short thread on the vowel systems of the seven readers. 🧵
Every single reader may have an overlong pronunciation of every single long vowel the reader has. These overlong vowels are phonetically conditioned and therefore non-phonemic. They occur: 1. Before hamza /ʔ/: [samāāʔ] /samāʔ/ 2. In super heavy syllables: [dāābbah] /dābbah/
Ibn Kaṯīr simply what we would think of as the Classical Arabic vowel system. The only difference is it has the non-phonemic overlong vowels. But I've argued in a recent paper that that is actually a feature more broadly in Classical Arabic prose.
The next simplest vowel system is found with the most popular reading today, that of Ḥafṣ (transmitted of ʿĀṣim). He has all the same vowels, but has a single lexical case of ʾimālah /ē/, exclusively in the word maǧrēhā (quran.com/11/41).
Ḥamzah has many cases of /ē/. He also has a vowel /ǣ/: 1. /rāri/ > [rǣri] (allophonic) 2. /ē/ stands before the feminine ending: التورية [at-tawrǣh] (maybe allophonic?) 3. Some lexical exceptions: al-qahhǣri and al-bawǣri (phonemic, cf. an-nāhāri, al-ǧawāri)
Al-Kisāʾī has /ē/ in many places. He also has /ȳ/, e.g qȳla "it was said" (and in lost transmissions /y/, /byjūt/ "houses").
He has a phonetically conditioned allomorph of the feminine ending /eh#/, but in same environments other /ah/ doesn't become /-eh/, so it's phonemic.
Warš, transmitter of Nāfiʿ has extensive use of /ǣ/. He has /ē/ only in the Sūrah starting letters ṭā-hē (quran.com/20/). I suppose it depends on your theoretical framework whether that is phonemic. Warš also has a (limited) used of the phoneme /ȳ/.
Hišām and Ibn Ḏakwān, transmitters of Ibn ʿĀmir have the same vowel system, e.g. Hišām has /ē/ in lexically determined positions (e.g. ʿēbidūna in quran.com/109/ and ONLY in that Sūrah, same word elsewhere has /ā/). Ibn Ḏakwān, e.g. in ʿimrēn. Both have /ȳ/.
Šuʿbah, the other transmitter of ʿĀṣim, has a couple of lexically determined cases of /ē/, but different words than Ḥafṣ. He has a couple of cases lexical ultrashort vowels: /ladŭnī/ (Q18:2), /niʕĭmmā/ (Q2:271), but he has no /ă/.
Qālūn, the other transmitter of Nāfiʿ, has all three ultrashort vowel values, adding, /taʕăddū/ and /yaxăssimūna/ and /yahăddī/. Like Warš, he has limited use of /ȳ/, but unlike Warš has no /ē/ or /ǣ/ at all.
ʾAbū ʿAmr's transmitters differ somewhat on the use of ultrashort vowels, al-Dūrī using them more consistently. ʾAbū ʿAmr has /ǣ/ that occurs only in words of certain shapes and lexical positions. It has a raised allophone [ē] after /r/, but /ē/ shows up in lexical places too.
So the readers general do not have the boring Classical 6-vowel system, (only 1 with that system). All others range between 7 and 11 phonemic vowels!
Arab grammarians describe 1 more vowel: /ō/. This appears to have once been in use, but none of the canonical readers retain it.
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Addendum: I should have mentioned explicitly that I based this description on the Taysīr, but even with that it looks like I missed a vowel for Qālūn's system. He uses /ē/ only once, in /hērin/ (Q9:109).
It's clear that the Uthman's Quran recension is a very stable text tradition, and I'm sometimes asked: is there any text in antiquity that shows a similar kind of stability over such a long time?
The answer: Yes there is. The (proto-)Masoretic tradition of the Hebrew bible.🧵
The Masoretic Text (MT) is one of several text traditions of the Hebrew Bible, and it is the tradition in which it is printed today. We technically speak of the Masoretic Text only when it has full vocalisation signs and marginal reading notes. thetorah.com/article/the-bi…
This tradition gets the form as we know it around the 10th century, and has remained basically unchanged since then.
However, with new discoveries (especially the Dead Sea Scrolls) it became clear that a consonantal skeleton of the MT is much much older. thetorah.com/article/judean…
Question for my followers who know Japanese: I'm looking at a Japanese Quran translation, and for the honorific form it uses compounds with 給う. But past tense isn't the expected tamatta, but 給うた, I'm guessing tamōta. Is that Classical Japanese? And how does it work?
I suppose this is the way that Kansai-ben would do a past tense like that. 笑うた warōta instead of 笑った waratta. But I don't think this translation is aiming to be in Kansai-ben. So is conventional modern pronunciation of Classical Japanese kansai-ified?
Im aware that there are other cases of polite/honorific speech where Japanese verbal conjugation suddenly start working as if it is Kansai-ben. Most notably with verbs like 御座る gozaru, which in the renyoukei form suddenly loses the expected /r/, 御座います.
Al-Farrāʾ's "Kitāb fīhi Luġāt al-Qurʾān", while listing different dialectal forms, he frequently opines on what is or is not used in recitation. He is our earliest source (d. 207 AH) of normative opinions given about what is appropriate for recitation. A small thread:🧵
faʿīl stems may become fiʿīl if the second root consonant is one of the six guttural consonants among Qays, Tamīm and Rabīʿah: riḥīm, biʿīr, liʾīm, biḫīl, riġīf, šihīd.
"But one does not recite with it, because the recitation is with the former (Hijazi) practice", ar-raḥīm etc
Qurayš and Kinānah say: nastaʿīnu, and the recitation follows it. Tamīm, ʾAsad and Rabīʿah say nistaʿīnu.
The Kufan al-ʾAʿmaš, who is part of al-Farrāʾ's isnād (al-Kisāʾī < Ḥamzah < al-ʾAʿmaš) , in fact recited in this way. But by al-Farrāʾs time no it was no longer accepted.
Today, by far the most dominant recitation of the Quran is that of Ḥafṣ (d. 180/796) who transmits from the Kufan reciter ʿĀṣim (d. 127/745). But this dominant position it has today appears to have been a rather recent one.
Thread on looking for Ḥafṣ in early manuscripts 🧵
Contrary to certain pseudoscholarly modern claims, there is absolutely no evidence that Ḥafṣ represents the "reading of the masses" from time immemorial until today. The reading was one of many and it only started to become dominant during the ottoman empire.
But just because it became dominant then, of course does not mean the reading was not transmitted before that. It certainly was, that much is clear even from the literary sources. Already with Ibn Mujāhid (d. 324/936) who canonized the seven, Ḥafṣ is included in transmission.
What is it with Classical Arabic/Qurʾānic Arabic textbooks and teaching people incorrect Arabic...
It seems like everyone has decided collectively it's better to lie about the details than actually teach it correctly.
So then you get the joy of unlearning all you learned wrong!
Of course there's also just the downright ignorant stuff about the Arabic script.
Why on earth write on the history of the script at all, if you're not going to reality check even a single thing you're saying! ARGH!
Moreover, a book that purports to be about "Quranic Arabic" but is actually specificlaly about the Arabic of the reading of Ḥafṣ ʿan ʿĀṣim is defensible, but at the very least you should *mention* that it is.
Al-Farrāʾ's maʿānī al-qurʾān is an important early source of a somewhat systematic description of the Kufan readings. Usually what he reports agrees with what we find in the canon. But sometimes he deviates from it, like this discussion for Q29:66. He tells us:
"ʿĀṣim and al-ʾAʿmaš recited wa-l-yatamattaʿū, taking it as a command or rebuke, with no vowel on the Lām, and the people of the Ḥijāz read wa-li-yatamattaʿū with a kasrah (on the lām) taking it to mean kay 'in order to'"
But that's not how ʿĀṣim is said to read!
Indeed at least for the Medinan Nāfiʿ, disagreement is reported for reading wa-li-yatamattaʿū. In canonical transmissions both the Medinans Waṛš from Nāfiʿ and ʾAbū Jaʿfar indeed read wa-li-yatamattaʿū as al-Farrāʾ reports (but Ibn Kaṯīr, the other Hijazi does not).