Did Britain sacrifice the Industrial Revolution to defeat Napoleon? A thread: 1/ Image
We've long known that growth during the classic IR of 1760-1820 was slow, and that major increases in real GDP per capita did not really occur until the early nineteenth century. 2/ Image
What we're less sure about is why. One popular rationale—to which I largely subscribe—stressed inherent factors, such as the lag-times in technological adoption, development, and diffusion, or the inevitably slow rate at which the "modern" sector outgrows lagging sectors. 3/ Image
But British growth was *really* slow by historical standards. Output per capita rose by .42 percent per annum from 1759 to 1801 and by .62 percent per year until 1851. The Third World average in the 1970s, by all accounts a difficult period, was. 3.2 percent—5-10 times faster. 4/
British industrialization also had some strange features. One was a very weak rate of capital accumulation (1.5-1.6%), such that much of the growth came from total factor productivity. In antebellum America, only 27% came from TFP; in the Third World, 10%. 5/
This was largely because British saving and investment were very low; the investment share in GDP was 9-10 percent in 1760 and 14 percent in 1850. Savings rates in the Third World (20.1%), Meiji Japan (14.8%), and 19th c. America (28%) were much higher. 6/
Lackluster capital accumulation—worse than in labor-intensive industrializers—is part of the explanation of slow growth. But why was saving so weak? 7/
One potential reason: Britain's incessant wars with France. It's often overlooked in IR economic histories (mentioned twice in passing in Allen's book), but Britain was at war in 36 of the 60 years from 1760 to 1820. 8/ Image
These wars—Seven Years', Revolutionary, Napoleonic—became increasingly expensive as the 18th century wore on. Britain's competitive edge became outspending its adversaries, partly through increased tax collection, but in large part via debt. 9/ Image
By the end of the Napoleonic Wars, the national debt was 2 times GDP, higher than United States at the end of the WWII (1.3) or today (1.25). If one counted net additions to public borrowing, the British savings rate was a much more respectable 18%. 10/ Image
Jeffrey Williamson argued that war finance "crowded out" private investment. This was exacerbated by usury laws restricting interest rates on mortgages and bonds at 5%, but not public debt. Once interest rates exceeded that, public liabilities replaced private 1-for-1. 11/ Image
He modeled the effects of debt, wartime price inflation, and military mobilization on the civilian economy and found that growth would have been substantially higher had Britain been at peace. Real wages would have been 65% higher in 1801 had 1759-1801 seen no conflict. 12/ Image
Since growth rates nearly doubled after the conclusion of peace, coincident with a rise in private investment (to 14% by 1850), he attributed Britain's early stagnation to its military commitments. 13/
There were empirical problems with the Williamson thesis. Interest rates did not appear to be sensitive to the level and only weakly correlated with additions to the debt. Capital markets didn't really seem to be over-taxed, as Williamson supposed. 14/ Image
The critique isn't fatal, however; there's evidence to suggest that interest rates were going to decline during the war anyway, and there have been sound recent arguments that the usury law makes rate-focused analysis useless anyway. 15/
The long-term implications might not have been severe, either. As my co-author @nunopgpalma points out in a paper with Patrick O'Brien, war may have later increased British welfare by securing imperial hegemony and facilitating financial development. 16/
But if war partly caused Britain's slow start, the implications would be vast. Sluggish growth in living standards may have had "little to do with the underlying forces of capitalist development" and more to circumstance—the insecurity of the 18th c. economic world. 17/
This, of course, is but the extended preview for this week's newsletter, which you can read here:

daviskedrosky.substack.com/p/all-quiet-on…
This is probably the motivating question: why do so many indicators of British growth *worsen* during the early IR?

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More from @dkedrosky

27 Aug
A summary thread and musings on Allen and Wrigley's theory of early pre-industrial urbanization in Britain. 1/ #econhist #EconTwitter #twitterstorians Image
Most pre-industrial societies were caught in a devastating low-level equilibrium trap: they had small cities (in absolute and relative terms) and unproductive agriculture (low crop yields and labor efficiency). 2/
To expand the cities and get more labor into industry, farms needed to become more productive—e.g. investment, land use optimization, crop experimentation, etc. for raising yields. 3/
Read 26 tweets
26 Aug
Considering that this poll was taken in a Berkeley history course, I'm mildly shocked! Image
Oh, you get to see my answers, too. That's nice.
Ah, back in business. We have an audience question seeking reassurance that the link between imperialism and capitalism will be discussed.
Read 4 tweets
18 Aug
THREAD+NEWSLETTER: Urban demand, NOT agrarian capitalism, drove city growth in early modern Britain. 1/

If you enjoy this, please share! I rely primarily on word of mouth for spreading the good word. daviskedrosky.substack.com/p/london-calli… #EconTwitter #econhist
A classic view of British industrialization, dating back to Marx, holds that autonomous change in agriculture—enclosures, private property, large farms—increased worker productivity, supplying the growing cities with labor, food, and raw materials 2/
Crafts and Harley (2004), for example, find that French-style peasant farming would have had a significant "deindustrializing" effect by lowering urban employment.

The implication: capitalist farming permits city growth and explains British structural transformation. 3/
Read 8 tweets
16 Aug
Why cities drove change in pre-industrial British agriculture, A THREAD (and newsletter daviskedrosky.substack.com/p/london-calli…): #EconTwitter #econhist

I've recently been privileged to join in some fun discussions with @pseudoerasmus and @antonhowes on the path of British development. 1/7
Pseudo, following Robert Allen and E. A. Wrigley, has been strongly emphasizing his argument that autonomous development in British trade and manufacturing provoked productive responses by farmers, allowing for structural transformation. 2/7

Anton has made similar arguments in his blog, emphasizing the role of a growing London in promoting specialization by comparative advantage in the English countryside. 3/7 antonhowes.substack.com/p/age-of-inven… Image
Read 7 tweets
9 Aug
The Industrial Revolution was NOT caused by institutional reforms. A THREAD (and a newsletter): #econhist #EconTwitter

Acemoglu and Robinson, in *Why Nations Fail*, argue that the Glorious Revolution created "inclusive institutions" that started British industrialization. 1/4
Their claims are premised on the notion that Glorious Revolution made Parliament an open-access institution where wealth-holders could constrain the monarchy and protect their property rights.

They hold that this promoted investment and later enabled modern growth. 2/4
But that doesn't fit the facts. Parliament remained elite-dominated, there was no discontinuous change in property rights (which had been secure since the Middle Ages), and the merchants in Parliament used the body to enrich themselves. 3/4
Read 8 tweets

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