I finally read this & thought the following was interesting: exercises quite similar to this ("saving rates rise with income, hence inequality increases aggregate saving") were a prime motivation for Friedman to develop the permanent income hypothesis in the 1950s.
This 1975 Alan Blinder paper "Distribution Effects and the Aggregate Consumption Function" has a nice exposition of the evolution of economic thought up to the 70s
Just to be clear, Friedman's basic idea is: if you see someone with high income in a given year who saves a large share of that income (a high saving rate), it could just be that she had a lucky year and is putting some of it aside.
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But then a secular shift in the income distribution that shifts income toward her wouldn't necessarily increase aggregate saving or would at least increase it by less.
Of course, @AtifRMian@ludwigstraub & @profsufi are very much aware of this classic argument and try to address it in some robustness checks.
But, as they say, without better data = panel data which basically doesn't exist for the U.S. it's very hard to do better.
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To be clear: I definitely don't subscribe to the permanent income hypothesis, see my work on HANK & MPCs, and think that inequality is super important for macro.
But I do think that the basic point about transitory income gains inflating measured saving rates of high-income households could be important, especially because top income status seems far from permanent, see e.g. @fatihguvenen@GregWKaplan Song gregkaplan.me/s/guvenen_kapl…
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I also don't think it's at all obvious that saving rates increase with (the relevant notion of) income. Here's Krugman again...
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... and @AndreasFagereng@BlomhoffHolm@GNatvik & I studied how saving rates vary with wealth (as opposed to current income) & found that they are flat
... which is theoretically consistent with saving rates being relatively flat w permanent income
As I said, I'm very sympathetic to this paper's argument and the great work of @AtifRMian@ludwigstraub & @profsufi on these topics more generally.
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But I find it interesting (or perhaps depressing?!) that data availability in the U.S. & many other countries means that almost 70 years after Friedman we still can't be sure to what extent saving rates increase with income and whether inequality increases aggregate saving
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Do wealthier households save a larger share of their incomes than poorer ones?
I suspect most people's prior is that the answer is "yes." Turns out that's incorrect, or rather: things are considerably more subtle, at least in our Norwegian wealth tax registry data.
A short 🧵:
The 🧵 is based on a major revision of "Saving Behavior Across the Wealth Distribution: The Importance of Capital Gains", which is joint with @AndreasFagereng@BlomhoffHolm & @GNatvik
Why do saving rates matter? Answer: for (i) secular trends in income & wealth inequality and (ii) how such distributional shifts feed back to macro aggregates
#EconTwitter hivemind: what are your favorite papers combining “causal” micro estimates (say from DiD or RCT) with a general-equilibrium macro model to answer an interesting macro question?
This is for my PhD teaching so the easier to read the better. Thanks in advance!
The benefits of new technologies accrue not only to high-skilled labor but also to owners of capital in the form of higher capital incomes. This increases income and wealth inequality.
Coincidentally this @voxdotcom "Billionaires Explained" show has a pretty good intuitive version of our theory netflix.com/watch/81097618 (from minute 8:00), there explained by @JeffDSachs.
It's also worth adding that standard theories predict exactly the opposite, namely that (in the long-run) all benefits of automation accrue to labor in the form higher wages.
Interesting proposal to tax capital gains on accrual rather than realization. But isn't it a bit more complicated than "unrealized capital gains are the dominant form of income of the rich and should therefore be taxed"?
Basic econ theory says: 1. source of capital gains matters, 2. whether you buy/sell matters.
Example: if only reason stock price increases is falling interest rates & investors just live off dividends/never sell, unrealized cap gains are just "paper gains" so why tax them?
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That the source of capital gains should matter for how they are taxed is an old argument.
Here are two short papers I found, one from 1940 and one from 1979.
This @TheEconomist article does not reflect the views of most economists I know.
Most economists I know did not "get off on the wrong foot" with epidemiologists. Instead they highly value their work and just try to learn from it as much as possible.
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They do not "intensely criticize" epidemiologists' models or their use. Instead they have hugely benefited from them and been very much aware of how difficult it is to forecast an epidemic in the face of limited and fast-changing data availability and quality.
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