While of course, the Quran is not talking about Soap, it would actually solve a vexing textual problem in Q5:69!

A short thread about the grammatical error of the Sabians. 🧵 Image
The verse starts with ʾinna llaḏīna ʾāmanū wa-llaḏīna hādū wa-ṣ-ṣāb(iʾ)ūna wa-n-naṣārā "Indeed, those who have believed, and those who were Jews or Sabians or Christians". The sentence is introduced with ʾinna "indeed", which should be followed by a noun in the accusative.
Thus, we would not expect wa-ṣ-ṣābiʾūna, but rather wa-ṣ-ṣābiʾīna.

(The joke here is, had we read it not as a nominative plural but as the noun aṣ-ṣābūna "the soap", it would be in the accusative and grammatical unproblematic! But this is just silly of course).
And in fact, there is a nearly perfectly parallel verse elsewhere in the Quran, namely at Q2:62 (with slightly different word order in the order of believers), and a slightly different verse a Q22:17 that starts EXACTLY the same, but has the expect aṣ-ṣābiʾīna instead. Image
Considering that all things are equal between these different verses, and aṣ-ṣābiʾūna sure looks like a grammatical mistake. And indeed, the Islamic tradition records (most prominently) a hadith from Aisha, wife of the prophet saying it is a mistake.
From al-Farrāʾ's Luġāt al-Qurʾān:
Muḥammad narrated to me saying al-Farrāʾ narrated to us saying: ʾAbū Muʿāwiyah narrated to us saying o the authority of Hišām b. ʿUrwah on the authority of his father on the authority of ʿĀʾišah that she was asked about His words: Image
ʾinna hāḏāni la-sāḥirāni (Q20:63), ʾinna llaḏīna ʾāmanū wa-llaḏīna hāḏū wa-ṣ-ṣābiʾūna (Q5:69) and about His speech lākini r-rāsiḫūna fī l-ʿilmi minhum wa-l-muʾminūna yuʾminūna bimā ʾunzila ʾilayka wa-ma ʾunzila min qablika wa-l-muqīmīna ṣ-ṣalāta.
And she said: "O my cousin, these are mistakes by the scribe."

This tradition is fairly widespread, and quite early. Regardless of whether it should be considered a reliable tradition, clearly people were bothered enough by this apparent mistake to transmit this tradition.
In other words, suggesting that there was a mistake in the Quranic standard text, was something that was apparently considered less problematic, than suggesting this apparent grammatical mistake was actually spoken as such by the prophet.
In linguistics, we don't generally speak of 'mistakes'. It's clear that to some people's intuition of Arabic grammar, this reading was ungrammatical, while seemingly to others (such as the scribe who wrote down the verse with the nominative), it was apparently acceptable.
There is no absolute answer about grammaticality. To some people saying "I ain't" for "I'm not" is ungrammatical, and to others it is perfectly acceptable. What comes to be considered "correct" or "incorrect" is a game of power. Who's in power gets to decide what is correct.
It is not difficult to come up with a reasonable explanation why this noun can apparently appear both in the nominative and accusative in the exact same context. The noun is very far removed from ʾinna, and that could make the government of the accusative less strong.
Alternatively (although, al-Farrāʾ says he doesn't like it much), in a string of subjects interspersed with wa- "and", only the first one is required to have the accusative.

Such an exception to the agreement rule happens nowhere else in the canonical readings to my knowledge. Image
However, I did find a parallel in a non-Canonical reading attributed to the transmitter ʿAbd al-Wāriṯ on the authority of the canonical reader ʾAbū ʿAmr, who read Q33:56 ʾinna ḷḷāha wa-malāʾikatuhū "verily God and his angels ..." (instead of wa-malāʾikatahū). Image
Thus, such constructions to some were incorrect when applying the nominative (as was purportedly the case for Aisha, or whoever forged that hadith), whereas to others (like the scribe(s) of the Uthmanic text), both were acceptable, and could be used in the same environment.
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Short addendum (should've checked right away). While the vast majority of the manuscripts have the canonical reading for Q33:56, the ancient Tübingen Manuscript indeed has wa-malāʾikatuhū, both in the original red vocalisation, and the later modern vowels!
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More from @PhDniX

19 Oct
The name of God in the Quran is Aḷḷāh, that much is clear. We also know that the Quran explicitly equates its God with the God the Christians and Jews follow. Today Arabic Christian and Jews alike will indeed call their God that. But where does this name come from? 🧵
It is frequently (and not unreasonably) assumed that Aḷḷāh is a contraction of the definite article al- "the" + ʾilāh "deity". And this is indeed likely its origin, but it is not without its problems. This loss of hamzah and kasrah (and addition of velarization) is irregular.
In Classical Arabic, the expected outcome of al-+ ʾilāh would simply be al-ʾilāh, not Aḷḷāh. So while its etymology might be "The God", the name does not mean "The God", just like "Peter" to an English speaker would not mean "stone".

en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CF%80%CE…
Read 24 tweets
28 Aug
Whenever one learns Classical Arabic, they are usually told that it has 6 vowels, three short ones: /a/, /i/, /u/, and their long counterparts: /ā/, /ī/, /ū/.

But many Quranic reading traditions have more than those, a short thread on the vowel systems of the seven readers. 🧵
Every single reader may have an overlong pronunciation of every single long vowel the reader has. These overlong vowels are phonetically conditioned and therefore non-phonemic. They occur:
1. Before hamza /ʔ/: [samāāʔ] /samāʔ/
2. In super heavy syllables: [dāābbah] /dābbah/
Ibn Kaṯīr simply what we would think of as the Classical Arabic vowel system. The only difference is it has the non-phonemic overlong vowels. But I've argued in a recent paper that that is actually a feature more broadly in Classical Arabic prose.

brill.com/view/journals/…
Read 14 tweets
26 Aug
It's clear that the Uthman's Quran recension is a very stable text tradition, and I'm sometimes asked: is there any text in antiquity that shows a similar kind of stability over such a long time?

The answer: Yes there is. The (proto-)Masoretic tradition of the Hebrew bible.🧵 Image
The Masoretic Text (MT) is one of several text traditions of the Hebrew Bible, and it is the tradition in which it is printed today. We technically speak of the Masoretic Text only when it has full vocalisation signs and marginal reading notes.
thetorah.com/article/the-bi… Image
This tradition gets the form as we know it around the 10th century, and has remained basically unchanged since then.

However, with new discoveries (especially the Dead Sea Scrolls) it became clear that a consonantal skeleton of the MT is much much older.
thetorah.com/article/judean…
Read 20 tweets
25 Aug
Question for my followers who know Japanese: I'm looking at a Japanese Quran translation, and for the honorific form it uses compounds with 給う. But past tense isn't the expected tamatta, but 給うた, I'm guessing tamōta. Is that Classical Japanese? And how does it work?
I suppose this is the way that Kansai-ben would do a past tense like that. 笑うた warōta instead of 笑った waratta. But I don't think this translation is aiming to be in Kansai-ben. So is conventional modern pronunciation of Classical Japanese kansai-ified?
Im aware that there are other cases of polite/honorific speech where Japanese verbal conjugation suddenly start working as if it is Kansai-ben. Most notably with verbs like 御座る gozaru, which in the renyoukei form suddenly loses the expected /r/, 御座います.
Read 4 tweets
11 Aug
Al-Farrāʾ's "Kitāb fīhi Luġāt al-Qurʾān", while listing different dialectal forms, he frequently opines on what is or is not used in recitation. He is our earliest source (d. 207 AH) of normative opinions given about what is appropriate for recitation. A small thread:🧵 Image
faʿīl stems may become fiʿīl if the second root consonant is one of the six guttural consonants among Qays, Tamīm and Rabīʿah: riḥīm, biʿīr, liʾīm, biḫīl, riġīf, šihīd.
"But one does not recite with it, because the recitation is with the former (Hijazi) practice", ar-raḥīm etc Image
Qurayš and Kinānah say: nastaʿīnu, and the recitation follows it. Tamīm, ʾAsad and Rabīʿah say nistaʿīnu.

The Kufan al-ʾAʿmaš, who is part of al-Farrāʾ's isnād (al-Kisāʾī < Ḥamzah < al-ʾAʿmaš) , in fact recited in this way. But by al-Farrāʾs time no it was no longer accepted. Image
Read 23 tweets
31 Jul
Today, by far the most dominant recitation of the Quran is that of Ḥafṣ (d. 180/796) who transmits from the Kufan reciter ʿĀṣim (d. 127/745). But this dominant position it has today appears to have been a rather recent one.

Thread on looking for Ḥafṣ in early manuscripts 🧵
Contrary to certain pseudoscholarly modern claims, there is absolutely no evidence that Ḥafṣ represents the "reading of the masses" from time immemorial until today. The reading was one of many and it only started to become dominant during the ottoman empire.
But just because it became dominant then, of course does not mean the reading was not transmitted before that. It certainly was, that much is clear even from the literary sources. Already with Ibn Mujāhid (d. 324/936) who canonized the seven, Ḥafṣ is included in transmission.
Read 25 tweets

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