In Ṣaḥīḥ al-Buḫārī there is an interesting Hadith the claims that the prophet would have prolonged recitation, and an example is given, saying he would prolong bismi llāāh, al-raḥmāān, al-raḥīīm. sunnah.com/bukhari/66/70
Thread on 'the prolonged reading of the prophet'. 🧵
This hadith first caught my attention because of its incongruous nature: in Quranic recitation today, prolongation like that doesn't happen at all. In the basmalah only al-raḥīīm would be prolonged if you pause upon it and drop the final case vowels.
Me and @phillipwstokes argue on the basis of rhyme & spelling that in Quranic Arabic words lost their final case vowels not just in pause but in context as well, which would lengthen lengthening in recitation. Could this hadith be a memory of this recitation style?
So I started tracking down versions of this Hadith to see if the wording like this is indeed ancient enough that it could be a plausible detail of a memory of the prophet's own recitation of the Quran. But it quickly becomes clear that Bukhari is the odd one out.
Other versions of the Hadith simply say the prophet's reading: kāna maddan "was stretched", kāna yamuddu maddan "used to stretched it excessively", kāna yamuddu bihā ṣawtahū maddan "used to stretch its sound excessively". But the specification of single words is Bukhari only.
Also the transmission of the Hadith is suspicious. Mapping out the different versions of this Hadith, with the wording a clear pattern emerges. The main wording of this hadith is kāna yamuddu ṣawtahū maddan, which consistently traces back to Jarīr b. Ḥāzim as the common link.
There are two fairly solid partial common links below him: ʿAbd al-Raḥmān b. Mahdiyy who seems to transmit the exact same wording. The other is Muslim b. ʾIbrāhīm who transmits a slightly abbreviated version (kāna yamuddu maddan).
Jarīr b. Ḥāzim as the spreader of the Hadith is extremely well-established, he forms the common link, and we can be certain that he is the one who spread the Hadith. The long version of Bukhari is a classic "dive".
It connects to an earlier authority with anomalous contents.
With this isolated chain of transmission and its anomalous contents, it is difficult to take the account as historical. Even if it was (which I doubt). there is simply no way to corroborate it. Too bad, as I would like it as evidence for my reconstruction of Quranic Arabic.
All the reliable part part of this hadith tells us, then is that Jarīr b. Ḥāzim claims to have heard that the prophet used to "stretch out the sound". A frustratingly vague description, which was probably the reason for the explanatory expansion of the hadith to be forged.
If you want to read more about the case system of Quranic Arabic base on the Quranic Consonantal text, check out our article here: academia.edu/37481811/Case_…
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One of the interesting, but seldom described features of Classical Arabic (i.e. "that which the grammarians describe") is the presence of a front rounded vowel ǖ [yː]. This is said to occur in some dialects in the passives of hollow verbs, e.g. qǖla 'it is said' instead of qīla.
Early descriptions mention this use for underived hollow roots, and it can be seen as the outcome of a Proto-Arabic *uwi which collapsed, not to /ī/, as becomes the standard, but to /ǖ/. Originally then hollow roots had the standard passive pattern *quwila.
As mentioned by al-Farrāʾ (first picture previous tweet), al-Kisāʾī would make ample use of this in recitation. In fact, he regularly does it for every single passive underived hollow verb. Several other readers use it too, but for them the pattern is less regular.
In the new volume by Segovia, there's an article that makes me feel like we have stepped into a time machine, all progress of the past decades is ignored. Emilio Ferrín argues for a Wansbrough-style late (post 800 CE) compilation of the Quran.
Here's why this doesn't work. 🧵
Ferrín pays lip service to the existence of Quranic manuscript fragments, but takes issue with the term "fragments" as it suggests that these "fragments" are part of a "whole". But he considers the texts to be compiled together only later.
It's rather clear that he has never actually looked at any of these manuscripts, otherwise he would not suggest something so absurd. And indeed, his discussion on early manuscripts makes it quite clear he is utterly clueless about them.
A lot of time gets wasted on the polemics of the stability of transmission of the Hebrew Bible and the Quran.
Instead of arguing without evidence let's compare a section the Masoretic Text to a 1QIsaª and the Cairo standard text to the Codex Parisino-Petropolitanus. 🧵
I've selected a 1QIsaª because it is really quite close to the standard Masoretic text. The point of comparison are Isaiah 40:2-28 (949 letters in total) and the Q3:24-37 (1041 letters in total). In number of letters they are therefore pretty similar.
Here is a comparison of the Isaiah scroll with the Masoretic text. Green = extra letter in the scroll, yellow = missing letter, blue = different letter, magenta and red are later additions and deletions.
The texts are very similar, but regardless differences are visible.
@theodorebeers@ibn_kato The rule according to the Arab grammarians, and normative Classical Arabic is that after a heavy syllable the suffixes should be -hu/-hi, and after short syllables the suffixes should be -hū/-hī. This is not just as poetry, but also prose (including the Quran).
@theodorebeers@ibn_kato In fact poetry is one of the prime contexts that are cited where the rule might be broken and short vowel -hu and -hi may be used after light syllables, and -hū and -hī may be used after heavy syllables!
@theodorebeers@ibn_kato Especially Maghrebi manuscripts, but occasionally also Mashreqi manuscripts can be quite precise about this. Here funūni-hī with miniature yāʾ on top of the hāʾ to mark length in a copy of Risālat ibn Abī Zayd.
Strangely manners for expressing this were never developed for -hū.
One of the features of the Quran is that certain words with no obvious rhyme or reason will occur in two different pronunciations even when the formula is essentially identical from one to the other.
This is most notable between Q18:78 and 82.
How to understand this? Thread 🧵
The end of the verse is identical save for the first occurrence having the long form of tastaṭiʿ and the second having the short form tasṭiʿ.
Of course you can come up with endless completely ad hoc case-by-case explanations, but these bring us no closer to *understanding* it.
There are many cases just like this. Q6:42 and Q7:94 are formulaically parallel, yet one has yataḍarraʿūna whereas the other has yaḍḍarraʿūna.
@AlCabbage045@SWANA_Heat@azforeman Sure, Classical Arabic was a thing way before colonialism. But I do think you can make a case that expectations of modernism clashing with the existing diglossia have massively exacerbated the problem.
In the Middle Ages Classical Arabic was for a specific learned class.
@AlCabbage045@SWANA_Heat@azforeman And that didn't even necessarily include all those who were literate. There why "Middle Arabic" as "the stage between old and new arabic" and "the stage between low and high arabic" get mixed up. In the middle ages non-use of Classical Arabic in writing was somehow more typical.
@AlCabbage045@SWANA_Heat@azforeman As nationalism as a concept developed, and the idea of a monolithic 'standard language', which due to the sociolinguistics couldn't be anything but the language that up until then was reserved for the highest of the highest worldwide religious elite, really made things difficult.