Thread by @hamsanandi

@karatalaamalaka I think the language families in India can be explained by multiple migrations in prehistoric times; By historic times ( i.e. earliest archeological remains are at Mehrgarh, IIRC - which are 9000 years ago) - the two families had already settled in with some intermingling

@karatalaamalaka The due-east-Krittikas description put parts of the Veda at least around ~3000 BCE. the 1500- 600 BCE span as imaginged by Max Mueller must go back by at least 1500 years imo.

We have Vedanga Jyotisha corresponding to the sky situation ~1400 BCE (give or take a century)

@karatalaamalaka And VJ was NOT written outside of Saptasindhu - Very likely at the upper reaches of it like in Kashmira or in around Kubha river (Kabul) by the latitude indication. Definitely not much north or south of that location.

@karatalaamalaka This superimposes the SSVC and the Veda composition period. So IMO, the readings of dravida languages in Indus valley seals is not taking us anywhere. Also, Kalibangan yagnya vedi and other things indicate the culture of Veda times was verly likely same as what we see in SSVC

@karatalaamalaka Not everything from a given historical time survieves as material & as literary sources. Everything in Veda do not need to match material found in SSVC. How many of my padyas have reference to my car,or my work?What survives in word is very different from what remons in material.

@karatalaamalaka In terms of no palace like buildings in SSVC & Veda talking about clans /chief etc-no need to fret either. Even 300 years ago the palaces of Keladi/Madikeri Nayakas were hardly different than normal dwellings. Slightly bigger, that's all (Nalkunadu palace/Shivappanayaka aramane)

@karatalaamalaka @threadreaderapp unroll please