In it's efficiacy calculation Pfizer mentions 8 vs 162 infections, arriving at at VE of 95%. That's correct, but let's assume all or some of those excluded might have been either infected or injured... How would VE look then?
Including all 311-60=251 additional protocol deviations from the vaccine arm, into the calcuation we arrive at -61% VE. Yes negative!
To arrive at 0% VE, about 60% or 153 need to be included.
For the CDC minimum of 50% VE, only 29% or 73 people would be needed.
So did Pfizer hide some infections or adverse events in this group?
What's the explanation for 4.2x more protocol deviations in the vaccine arm?
• • •
Missing some Tweet in this thread? You can try to
force a refresh
Why vaccine efficacy (VE) MUST be calculated by taking into account 'total number of tests', and why calculations based on population are likely misleading/incorrect.