That would have been possible, had the administration not done everything they could to conceal the complaint from Congress.
Where have we heard that strategy before?
Bill Barr didn't recuse from the process, even though he's implicated in the complaint's second paragraph. What part did he play in the decision?
As he says, "everything in this matter is totally unprecedented."
He says he was just following procedure—but that didn't stop him from overriding procedure to keep the complaint hidden from Congress.
That "chilling effect" is exactly what the president is hoping for.
That's unprecedented.
But he'll "emphatically" deny that Trump asked him to identify the whistleblower.
So ... why couldn't he say no to the first question?
The White House moved quickly to conceal the records of the call.
When the whistleblower filed a complaint about that cover-up, the DNI went to ... the White House, who instructed them to continue covering it up.
Maybe that's why Trump forced out Dan Coats, one of the few administration officials who would say so unequivocally.
So why did he decide that the president allegedly conspiring with a foreign leader to undermine democracy wasn't in his jurisdiction?
It's not. It's exactly what Trump did.
Pressuring a foreign government for help winning an election is illegal and wrong.
Extorting help from a foreign government in an election is illegal and wrong.
It's also exactly what Trump did.
-Trump was withholding aid from Zelensky.
-Trump asked Zelensky for an investigation into a political opponent by name.
-He said to work with Barr and Giuliani.
And Maguire gave the White House and Barr veto power over whether Congress would see it.
So why won't he confirm or deny that he had those conversations to begin with?