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Something I’ve never understood about the “impeachment requires crime” argument:

The “Madisonian Compromise” at the const’l convention left unresolved whether there would be _any_ lower federal courts. Without those, there couldn’t be federal crimes—so no impeachable offenses??
And if the argument is that the Constitution’s reference to “high crimes and misdemeanors” is a reference to _state_ criminal laws, why would—or should—state criminal laws ever speak to abuses of federal offices?
Here’s Michael Collins and Jonathan Nash in the @VirginiaLawRev in 2011 on why federal crimes generally can’t (and couldn’t be) prosecuted in state court:

virginialawreview.org/volumes/conten…
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