Interesting old blogpost on retroflex sounds in Indo-Aryan

manasataramgini.wordpress.com/2008/05/15/cer…
I am relatively new to this

@blog_supplement I know you are making a case above that Indo-Aryan has had a long tradition of retroflex sounds

But you also suggest that the more archaic forms of words in Vedic are usually dental consonants
But in that case, what explains the relative lack of retroflex sounds in classical sanskrit? as well as in modern Hindi..

In contrast, in the Dravidian languages, retroflexes persist

E.g. muraLidharan in tamil vs muralidhar in Hindi
Also saw this post which suggests an old Vedic tradition of retroflexes which appears to have become less common in classical sanskrit?

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