Could I ask a question that I know is being asked by others, on reading this by @anandMenon1 (remembering we are not economists). Did you reach your Johnson modelling of - £2250 PA per person by adding together 3/ and 4/ below :-
Income plus productivity losses?
I am not clear whether 5/ in @anandMenon1 calculations were also taken into account (migration impact).
ALSO is this the cumulative loss over 10-15 years. I.E. it starts off smaller (how small?) and gradually expands so that in 10-15 years this is what the gap between what our income would have been with EU membership and Johnson’s model.
I don’t want to mislead people by saying (“It is reasonable to forecast a £2250 (or maybe £3k )loss of income per person PA when their felt loss over - say - 3 -5 years is maybe £800 pa
You are so good at explaining things I thought you might not mind!
ft.com/content/a29b40…
Also any explanatory leaflets have got to be better than 2016 Ref.