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@rlefraim wrote, "WHY DID THE USA STATE THAT JEWISH TOWNS AND VILLAGES IN #JUDEA AND #SAMARIA WERE LEGAL?

BECAUSE THEY ARE.

All the rhetoric claiming that Jewish Settlements are illegal under International Law, are really political proclamations misstating what the law is 1)
Those claiming settlements illegal point to the Geneva Conventions, and claim that Israel took land in war from other countries and therefore moving populations to those areas and establishing settlements is illegal. 2) #Israel #GenevaConventions
BUT THAT IS ABSURD UNDER THE GENEVA CONVENTIONS WHICH ESTABLISH RULES ABOUT CONFLICTS BETWEEN SOVEREIGN STATES. When Israel took over the West Bank (so-called) in 1967, it was not a part of Jordan, never recognized as part of any sovereign Jordanian state. 3) #Israel
In fact, Jordan was the invading power in 1948 that had no legal right to annex or change anything in that territory under the 1949 Armistice Agreement, & Jordan’s claims to the land were only recognized by 2 other countries, Egypt & Pakistan, & never by the Int'l Community. 4)
So, when #Israel took the land and drove the Jordanian occupiers out, that land was being returned to its original status under every previous international agreement, from San Remo to the League of Nations.

And therefore there is no occupation, & all Settlements are Legal. 5)
Of course for years now, to appease the Muslim World, the Int'l Community has twisted the law, ignored its provisions, and labeled what Israel does as “illegal”. Calling something illegal by the mob, motivated by #antisemitism, does not make it illegal under the law." 6)
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