Can someone please answer this basic question? Person A (Trump) was in close contact (handshakes, etc.) w/B&C, who had the virus but were asymptomatic at the time. /1
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Obviously, there was a *lower* risk of A contracting the virus than there would have been had B&C been coughing/sneezing. But it was still transmittable, of course, e.g., via B/C's hands. I can understand why perhaps testing wouldn't be done on most people in A's position ... /2
... *if* tests are scarce and thus must be reserved for needier cases.
HOWEVER, he's the POTUS, & he's in close contact w/most of the federal officials who are most important in dealing w/the crisis. So why is testing Trump "not currently indicated," as Dr. Conley asserts? /3
HOWEVER, he's the POTUS, & he's in close contact w/most of the federal officials who are most important in dealing w/the crisis. So why is testing Trump "not currently indicated," as Dr. Conley asserts? /3
What's the harm? And if he's *not* being tested, why not at least self-quarantine (and stop shaking hands w/others)? /4
Just to be clear: I am NOT asking why Trump doesn't want to be tested. I am asking why Dr. Conley, citing the CDC, insists that such testing is "not currently indicated."
