, 8 tweets, 2 min read
Serious questions and expecting serious replies that remain *on topic*. For dyslexia and "science of reading" advocates:

Please name a distinct period in history over the past 100 years in the US when there was political and public consensus reading achievement was "good." +
Please identify *scientific research* from that period that shows some positive causal relationship between how students were being taught reading and that "good" outcome.

Please identify any period of testing in US when outcomes were not mostly related to socio-econ status +
Please share *scientific research* that shows any changes for a state in NAEP scores were directly caused by changes in reading policy or programs. [Note: None is possible for 2019 data yet; therefore, any claims of cause are without a basis in scientific research.] +
Please show *scientific research* that clarifies if any single year change in NAEP data or higher scores in any single state is something other than an outlier, and then how any causal relationships of changes can be scales to entire country (all students). +
Please show *scientific research* that can dispute that high-stakes testing in the US has always been and continues to be mostly a reflection of socio-econ status, race, etc., and mostly unaffected by reading policies or programs. +
Please identify any credible evidence that reading has ever been taught or is currently taught in any uniform way, including *scientific research* that proves that state policy and adopted reading programs are being implemented with uniform fidelity across a school or state. +
Explain how the teaching of reading is somehow unique to any teaching in that *all students must X* applies to reading but clearly isn't a credible claim about any other type of teaching/learning. [Also why should special needs practice drive policy for all students?]
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