On why it’s problematic that economists take preferences as given.
Where preferences are in fact fairly stable and safely taken as exogenous.
Eg firms, for the most part, maximize profits. Investment bankers like making more money. Consumers want cheaper milk.
Like our social preferences. Our political peferences. Our passions. Our values.
And behavior may look a lot more “irrational”, or just erratic, if these effects are ignored.
One confusion:
Do people play Nash in a one shot anonymous prisoner’s dilema? No. Even Nash knew that.
Does that provide evidence against game theory?
Only if you think bout it wrong.
But that’s the wrong way to think bout Nash.
Not predicting behavior in a novel context, a context our preferences weren’t designed to handle.
*That’s* where Nash is helpful
Sensible conclusion if Nash doesn’t shape our preferences but results given preferences. But that’s the wrong way to think bout it.
“Well maybe the best way to test if our social preferences come from Nash in repeated games is to have subjects play in a repeated prisoners dilema. And see if their strategies match equilibrium strategies.”
Cause what we really wanna do is explain our pro-social *preferences* using Nash. Not our *behavior* in a repeated game GIVEN our pro-social preferences.
Who we vote for. Which policies we support as voters. Maybe also as politicians.
Which is very bizarre.
That’s what happens when you take preferences (and ideologies) as given. You think the preferences are explaining puzzling behaviors. When the preferences themselves require explaining.
This is a topic economists have missed, because they take preferences as given. So they just take passions as is.
If one just realizes people aren’t rationally choosing human capital investment and how to allocate their time etc GIVEN passions.
(See this thread for the argument fleshed out a lot more: )
Similar point as passions. Economists mostly don’t talk about these. Presumably b/c if you take them as given it seems econ doesn’t have much to add.
And: they can be well understood with incentives if we just think bout the incentives for holding these principles
And my papers “cooperating w/out looking” and “signal burying game” for some explanations for how this is sustained in equilibrium.
And maybe this thread starting from this tweet: )
Cases where incentives and Nash work well. But ONLY IF you are thinking about the DESIGN of preferences. Not behavior GIVEN preferences.
The behavioral econ lit is a complete mess. A bunch of misinterpreted experiments. And debating over utility functions that are intuitively appealing but w/o a sense of what preferences are reasonable or what moderates them.
None of these are answerable if we take political ideologies as given.
First taste based discrimination.
Again, economists just assume some of us have a taste against certain groups.
Ignore these effects and you will miss valuable moderators. Valuable ways to ameliorate discrimination, if you are so inclined.
But what does it mean to just not like them. When might we expect this? And wha might moderate these effects?
We may have some preinclination to favor in group members, or prefer attractive people, or those who abide by socially sanctioned sexual and familiar norms.
Get rid of those enforcement mechanism, and the taste, maybe didn’t disappear, but definitely toned down.
Observability will matter too.
But it’s not that much further of a logical leap to realize that a lot of our internalized aesthetic tastes are driven by status signaling. Or other signaling more generally.
But taste for skin tone is just that. A taste. Even though it was shaped by signaling
And economists seem to get this.
Maybe more so than all my earlier examples.
And stop thinking of all these as fixed and given and exogenous. It doesn’t work.
/eom